Northern Virginia Community College (Manassas Campus)

NAS 130 - Elements of Astronomy

FINAL Examination Review

  1. The scientific method depends on

    2. *A reproducible results.

    B clearly stated laws of nature.

    C accurate initial predictions.

    D fact based hypotheses.

    E communication of findings.

  2. A theory is

    3. A an educated guess.

    B a statement that describes how a system will behave.

    C a precise mathematical equation.

    *D based on many observations and experiments.

    E a tested hypothesis.

  3. How is a hypothesis tested?

    4. A by using the hypothesis to make predictions about a system.

    B by comparing observations in nature with predictions.

    C by making a new hypothesis.

    *D Both A and B above are true.

    E All of A, B and C above are true.

  4. Compared to its period of revolution, the Moon's period of rotation is

    5. A longer

    B shorter

    *C the same length

    D sometimes longer, sometimes shorter

    E the Moon does not rotate

  5. At what latitude on Earth is the North Pole Star (Polaris) on the horizon?

    6. A the Arctic Circle

    *B the equator

    C the North Pole

    D the South Pole

    E there are many latitudes where this occurs

  6. The angular distance of an object in the sky, above the observer's horizon is called

    7. A azimuth

    *B altitude

    C declination

    D latitude

    E right ascension

  7. The angular distance of an object in the sky measured along the observer's horizon starting at the North going East, is called

    8. *A azimuth

    B altitude

    C declination

    D latitude

    E right ascension

  8. The angular distance (measured in hour angles) of an object in the sky measured along the Celestial Equator from the Vernal Equinox, going eastward, is called

    9. A azimuth

    B altitude

    C declination

    D latitude

    *E right ascension

  9. The angular distance of an object in the sky above or below the Celestial Equator is called

    10. A azimuth

    B altitude

    *C declination

    D latitude

    E right ascension

  10. The ecliptic is

    11. A the line passing from north to south directly overhead

    B the orbit of the Moon

    C the path of a star in the sky

    D the path of the Earth's north pole in the sky

    *E the path of the Sun in the sky

  11. If the Earth's axis were not tilted with respect to its orbital plane, then

    12. A a mean solar day would be longer

    B a sidereal day would be longer

    C the tides would be much stronger

    *D there would be virtually no seasons

    E the period of revolution and rotation would be equal

  12. What is the phase of the Moon at point 1 in the diagram?

    13. *A first quarter

    B full

    C new

    D third quarter

    E waning crescent

  13. At what point in the diagram is the phase of the Moon waxing crescent?

    14. A 1

    B 2

    C 3

    D 5

    *E 8

  14. At what point in the diagram is the phase of the Moon third (last) quarter?

    15. A 1

    B 2

    C 3

    *D 5

    E 8

  15. At what point in the diagram might there be a lunar eclipse?

    16. A 1

    *B 3

    C 5

    D 7

    E 8

  16. At what point in the diagram is the phase of the Moon waxing gibbous?

    17. A 1

    *B 2

    C 3

    D 5

    E 8

  17. You read about a full moon rising in the middle of the night, this can't be true:

    18. A because only quarter moons appear in the middle of the night.

    B because you never see a full moon in the middle of the night.

    *C because every full moon rises near sunset, not in the middle of the night.

    D because full moons rise at 9:00 PM.

    E because full moons never rise.

  18. Polaris is a very important star because

    19. A it can sometimes be seen during the day

    B it displays retrograde motion

    *C it lies near the North Celestial Pole

    D it marks the vernal equinox

    E its position in the sky indicates the season

  19. Mars has an equatorial diameter of 6,794 kilometers. How would this be expressed in scientific notation?

    20. A 6,794 kilometers

    *B 6.794 x 103 kilometers

    C 6.794 x 105 kilometers

    D 6.794 x 109 kilometers

    E 6.794 x 106 kilometers

  20. The star Ross 128 has an apparent magnitude of 11 while the star Luyten 789-6 has an apparent magnitude of 12. Which star is brighter?

    21. *A Ross 128

    B Luyten 789-6

    C they have the same brightness

    D all of the above

    E none of the above

  21. The star Ross 128 has an apparent magnitude of 11 and the star Luyten 789-6 has an apparent magnitude of 12. The star that is brighter is how many times brighter?

    22. A Approximately 1.5 times brighter

    B Approximately 2 times brighter

    *C Approximately 2.5 times brighter

    D Approximately 3 times brighter

    E Approximately 3.5 times brighter

  22. An eclipse of the Sun doesn't occur every month because

    23. A sometimes the Moon is too far away

    B the Moon always keeps the same side toward the Earth

    *C the Moon's orbit is not in the plane of the Earth's orbit

    D you have to be in the right place to see a solar eclipse

    E solar eclipses do occur every month somewhere on Earth

  23. Modern astrology

    24. A is a reasonable way to use planetary motions to guide one’s life

    B is an accurate way of determining a person’s characteristics

    C accurately predicts your chance of finding true love

    D a, b and c

    *E has no scientific basis

  24. The following is the proper order (from longer wavelength to shorter wavelength) for visible light:

    25. A green, yellow, orange, red, violet, indigo, blue

    B violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red

    C red, blue, green, yellow, orange, indigo, violet

    D green, red, blue, yellow, orange, indigo, violet

    *E red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet

  25. The following have wavelengths LONGER than visible light:

    26. *A infrared, microwave, radio

    B ultraviolet, microwave, radio

    C ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma ray

    D all of the above have wavelengths greater than visible light

    E none of the above have wavelengths greater than visible light

  26. Two objects are moving closer together. Each will see the other's light

    27. A red-shifted

    B better than if moving apart

    C richer in heavier elements

    *D blue-shifted

    E shifted towards microwave region of the spectrum

  27. The following is a list of apparent magnitude of objects in the sky. Which of the following is the brightest object?

    28. A 26.3

    B 10.5

    C -1.4

    *D -26.1

    E -3.8

  28. How do we humans measure time?

    29. A Using seconds

    B Using a solar calendar

    C Using a lunar calendar

    *D All of the above

    E None of the above

  29. Wien's Law relates which two properties of an object?

    30. A temperature and velocity

    *B temperature and peak wavelength

    C temperature and energy radiated

    D focus and wavelength

    E Doppler shift and wavelength

  30. Stefan's Law relates which two properties of an object?

    31. A temperature and velocity

    B temperature and peak wavelength

    *C temperature and energy radiated

    D focus and wavelength

    E Doppler shift and wavelength

  31. If you turn up the temperature of an oven from 300 degrees Kelvin to 600 degrees Kelvin, the oven will utilize how much more electrical energy?

    32. A 10 times

    B 2 times

    C 4 times

    D 8 times

    *E 16 times

  32. If you apply a high voltage across electrodes in a chamber of hydrogen, the type of spectrum you will see in a spectroscope looking at the gas is:

    33. *A an emission spectrum

    B an absorption spectrum

    C a continuous spectrum

    D all of the above spectra

    E none of the above spectra

  33. You have a chamber of hydrogen gas, apply a voltage and place it between you and the sun. The spectrum you will see looking at it through a spectroscope will contain:

    34. A emission spectral lines

    B absorption spectral lines

    *C both emission and absorption spectral lines

    D sunspots

    E none of the above

  34. Which of the following is NOT a type of telescope

    35. A reflector

    B refractor

    C radio

    D x-ray

    *E none of the above, because they are all types of telescopes

  35. Which type of telescope has a lens as its objective?

    36. A reflector

    B radio

    *C refractor

    D Hubble

    E none of the above have use a lens as the objective

  36. Which type of sensor does NOT act in an accumulative manner?

    37. *A eye

    B CCDs

    C camera film

    D all of the above act in an accumulative manner

    E none of the above act in an accumulative manner

  37. Although similar to optical telescopes, radio telescopes

    38. A cannot be made as large

    B must be put in space

    *C use wire mesh instead of mirrors

    D were found to be useless since no objects emit radio waves

    E can only be used during daylight hours

  38. The most important function of a telescope is generally to

    39. *A collect more light from faint objects

    B help us see radiation that cannot get through the Earth's atmosphere

    C magnify star images

    D separate light into its spectrum

    E generate light

  39. All large modern telescopes are reflectors rather than refractors, because

    40. A a mirror collects more light than a lens of the same size

    *B it is not practical to make large lenses due to weight and support

    C reflectors produce higher magnification

    D refractors produce lower resolution

    E mirrors are more focussing than lenses

  40. Compared to its period of revolution, the Moon's period of rotation is

    41. A longer

    B shorter

    *C the same length

    D sometimes longer, sometimes shorter

    E the Moon does not rotate

  41. Using Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion, the period of a planet revolving around the Sun can be found if we know its

    42. *A average distance from the Sun

    B density

    C mass

    D period of rotation

    E more than one of the above are necessary

  42. Galileo's observations of the phases of Venus helped convince him that

    43. A the Moon goes around the Earth

    B the Sun goes around the Earth

    C Venus goes around the Earth

    *D Venus goes around the Sun

    E Ptolemy's model of the solar system was correct

  43. If gravity were to suddenly disappear for our orbiting space shuttle astronauts, they would (by Newton’s first Law)

    44. *A go flying in a straight line away from Earth

    B go around the Earth as before

    C drop straight down to the ground

    D remain in the position it was before gravity ceased

    E none of the above

  44. Ptolemy is best remembered for

    45. *A developing the geocentric solar system model

    B proving the Earth is spherical

    C showing that the orbits of the planets are ellipses

    D observing the positions of the planets

    E developing the heliocentric solar system model

  45. Based on Newton's first law, if a body is moving with a curved path, then

    46. A it is being controlled by gravity

    *B there is a force acting on it

    C there is no equal and opposite reaction

    D there is no force acting

    E the body's position cannot be determined precisely

  46. According to Kepler's second law, a planet is moving fastest when it is at

    47. A aphelion

    B conjunction

    C opposition

    *D perihelion

    E planets orbit the Sun at a constant speed

  47. Suppose you are a space shuttle astronaut taking a space walk. Your life line breaks and the jets on your backpack are out of fuel. How can you get back to the shuttle alive?

    48. A flap your arms

    B lean closer to the center of mass

    *C throw your backpack directly away from the shuttle

    D wait for gravity to pull you and the shuttle together

    E start spinning yourself

  48. Galileo's observations of the phases of Venus helped convince him that

    49. A the Moon goes around the Earth

    B the Sun goes around the Earth

    C Venus goes around the Earth

    *D Venus goes around the Sun

    E Ptolemy's model of the solar system was correct

  49. Using the proper phase diagram from those provided, what phase would carbon dioxide be in at a temperature of -56.4o C and an atmospheric pressure equivalent to that of Earth's at sea level?

    50. A The carbon dioxide would exist as a liquid.

    *B The carbon dioxide would exist as a gas.

    C The carbon dioxide would exist as a solid.

    D The carbon dioxide could be in any phase, solid, liquid or gas.

    E The carbon dioxide could be either in a gas or solid phase.

  50. The greenhouse effect occurs because

    51. *A carbon dioxide is transparent to visible light and opaque to infrared radiation.

    B carbon dioxide is transparent to infrared radiation and opaque to ultraviolet radiation.

    C ozone is transparent to ultraviolet radiation and opaque to infrared radiation.

    D methane is transparent to infrared radiation and opaque to visible light.

    E the sun emits more infrared radiation than ultraviolet radiation.

  51. Earth possesses few visible craters and the moon possesses many. This is because

    52. A Earth formed later than the moon and, therefore hasn't encountered as many meteoroids.

    B the moon doesn't have an atmosphere that could burn up meteorites before impacting.

    C erosion and plate tectonics have slowly removed evidence of past cratering on Earth.

    D A, B and C.

    *E Only B and C above.

  52. Which of the following represents the MANTLE of the Earth?

    53. A

    *B

    C

    D

    E None of the above is the mantle.

  53. Within which part of the atmosphere does weather occur?

    54. A Ionosphere

    B Mesosphere

    C Stratosphere

    *D Troposphere

    E None of the above.

  54. Which type of rock is formed from another type of rock under high pressure and temperature?

    55. A Sedimentary Rocks

    B Igneous Rocks

    *C Metamorphic Rocks

    D All of the above.

    E None of the above.

  55. How do the densities of the terrestrial and jovian planets compare?

    56. A All of the planets have similar densities.

    B Comparison are useless because the jovian planets are so much larger than the terrestrials.

    C No general statement can be made.

    D The jovian planets have higher densities than the terrestrial planets.

    *E The terrestrial planets have higher densities than the jovian planets.

  56. The presence of Earth's magnetic field is a good indication that

    57. A there is a large amount of magnetic material buried at the North Pole.

    *B there is a quantity of liquid metal swirling around in the Earth's core.

    C the Earth is composed largely of iron.

    D the Earth is completely solid.

    E there are condensed gasses in the core of the Earth.

  57. The existence of earthquake shadow zones indicates that there is an abrupt change between the properties of the mantle and those of the core. Specifically, the transverse wave shadow zone shows that the outer core must be

    58. A solid.

    *B liquid or semi-liquid.

    C gaseous.

    D similar to crustal material.

    E impossible to determine.

  58. Mercury's surface most resembles that of

    59. A the Earth

    *B the Moon

    C Venus

    D Mars

    E Pluto

  59. Mercury experiences extreme highs and lows in temperature between day and night

    60. A Mercury is so close to the sun

    *B because it lacks a "blanket" of atmosphere

    C because Mercury's atmosphere has a runaway greenhouse effect

    D because of Mercury's orbital inclination

    E all of the above

  60. The Venus atmosphere

    61. A is almost completely water.

    *B is almost completely carbon dioxide.

    C is almost completely nitrogen.

    D is almost completely oxygen.

    E is almost completely methane.

  61. The Martian surface is reddish in color largely

    62. A because of the dust storms.

    B because of sulfuric acid rain.

    *C because of iron oxide in the soil.

    D because of volcanic ash.

    E because of methane in the atmosphere.

  62. Which of these planets have rings?

    63. A Jupiter

    B Neptune

    C Uranus

    *D all of the above

    E none of the above

  63. Saturn's famous rings are

    64. A composed of complex carbohydrates.

    B composed of a solid thin disk of material.

    C composed mostly of rocky boulders.

    D composed of a disk of liquid helium.

    *E composed mostly of icy particles moving about Saturn.

  64. At which planet can you find the Sun almost directly overhead at the pole?

    65. A Venus

    B Mars

    C Jupiter

    D Saturn

    *E Uranus

  65. Pluto should not be referred to as a Jovian planet because

    66. A it is more like a terrestrial planet.

    B it has no rings.

    *C it is more like an icy moon.

    D it contains no hydrogen, only helium.

    E it's not a planet, but an asteroid.

  66. Comets are thought to reside mainly in

    67. A the inner solar system.

    B an orbit between Mars and Jupiter.

    C the solar nebula.

    D an orbit parallel to Earth.

    *E the Oort Cloud and Kuiper Belt.

  67. Astronomers believe that a region in the core of many galaxies contains millions to billions of solar masses called

    68. A a blue supergiant

    B a red supergiant

    C a pulsar

    D a relativistic warp

    *E a supermassive black hole

  68. Scientists look for evidence of black holes by examining X-ray emissions from regions near black holes called

    69. A a neutron star

    B a singularity

    C a core

    *D an accretion disk

    E a pulsar

  69. The point at the center of a black hole that contains all of the collapsed matter is called

    70. A a neutron star

    *B a singularity

    C a core

    D an accretion disk

    E a pulsar

  70. What type of nebula is caused by the blocking of radiation from behind the nebula itself?

    71. A an Orion nebula

    B a hydrogen nebula

    C a reflection nebula

    *D a dark (absorption) nebula

    E an emission nebula

  71. What type of nebula is caused by the scattering of light from nearby stars in the nebula?

    72. A an Orion nebula

    B a hydrogen nebula

    *C a reflection nebula

    D a dark (absorption) nebula

    E an emission nebula

  72. The Milky Way galaxy contains what well defined structures?

    73. A core, nucleus, rim

    *B nuclear bulge, disk, spiral arms, halo

    C nuclear bulge, disk, accretion disk

    D core, nucleus, accretion disk

    E core, radiative zone, convective zone, photosphere

  73. The spin flip of electrons in atoms causes what phenomenon?

    74. A high energy cosmic rays

    B cosmic background microwave emissions

    C blue emission lines

    D accretion disk

    *E 21 centimeter emission line

  74. The correct order of the layers of the Sun from innermost to outermost (of those printed in line) is:

    75. A core, chromosphere, photosphere

    B core, convective layer, radiative layer

    C radiative layer, convective layer, core

    D convective layer, core, radiative layer

    *E core, radiative layer, convective layer

  75. The correct order of the layers of the Sun's atmosphere from innermost to outermost (of those printed in line) is

    76. A chromosphere, corona, photosphere

    B chromosphere, photosphere, corona

    C corona, chromosphere, photosphere

    D corona, photosphere, chromosphere

    *E photosphere, chromosphere, corona

  76. The hottest part of the solar atmosphere is the

    77. A chromosphere

    *B corona

    C photosphere

    D Maunder maximum

    E cytosphere

  77. Sunspots are

    78. A areas obscured by higher layers

    B ashes of nuclear burning brought to the surface by convection

    C holes in the photosphere that allow us to see deeper regions

    *D regions which are cooler and less bright than surrounding material

    E causing global warming

  78. The appearance of a star's spectrum depends primarily on its

    79. A age

    B composition

    C luminosity

    *D temperature

    E core pressure

  79. The sunspot cycle is a period of about 11 years during which

    80. A each sunspot increases in size to a maximum and then decreases to a minimum

    *B the average number of spots rises to a maximum and then sinks again to a minimum

    C the material composing a spot makes one complete rotation

    D the spots move from one of the Sun's polar regions to the other

    E the Sun and the spots on it make one complete rotation

  80. Astronomer Laurel emits a photon with a wavelength of 6563 A (Angstroms). This photon is intercepted by astronomer Hardy, who measures its wavelength to be 6565 A. You can conclude that Laurel and Hardy are

    81. A at different temperatures

    *B moving apart

    C moving closer together

    D using different systems of measurement

    E not moving at all, relative to one another

  81. During the sunspot cycle the position of new sunspots on the Sun

    82. *A changes from mid-latitudes to the equator

    B changes from mid-latitudes to the poles

    C changes from the equator to the mid-latitudes

    D changes from the equator to the poles

    E does not change in any predictable

  82. In the HR diagram, most stars lie on the main sequence because

    83. *A all stars spend most of their lives there

    B most stars have been born very recently

    C other stars are not plotted on the HR diagram

    D other stars are very faint and hard to see

    E other stars prevent them leaving the diagonal

  83. Using this diagram, at what location would you find our Sun during most of its lifetime?

    84. A 1

    B 2

    C 3

    *D 4

    E 5

  84. Again using the diagram from before, where might you find a blue supergiant?

    85. A 1

    *B 2

    C 3

    D 4

    E 5

  85. Which letter is closest to the location of the helium flash?

    86. A

    B

    *C

    D

    E

  86. Using the same diagram above, which letter is closest to the location of core ignition?

    87. A

    B

    C

    *D

    E

  87. Using the same diagram above, which letter is closest to the location of the final stage of a star like our sun?

    88. A

    *B

    C

    D

    E

  88. What is the best estimate for the age of M3?

    89. A less than 100 million years old

    B about 100 million years old

    C about 1 billion years old

    *D about 10 billion years old

    E about 100 billion years old

  89. What is the best estimate for M41?

    90. *A less than 10 million years old

    B about 500 million years old

    C about 1 billion years old

    D about 10 billion years old

    E about 100 billion years old

  90. A type-II supernova

    91. A occurs when a white dwarf's mass exceeds the Chandrasekhar limit,

    B is the result of helium flash,

    C is the result of a carbon core detonation.

    *D occurs when the iron core of a massive star collapses.

    E occurs only in binary star systems.

  91. Pulsars are believed to be

    92. A pulsating neutron stars

    B pulsating white dwarfs

    *C rotating neutron stars

    D rotating white dwarfs

    E alien radio transmissions

  92. Up to 90 percent of a star's mass can be thrown off in a supernova explosion. The remainder of the star will be a

    93. A black hole

    B neutron star

    C white dwarf

    *D more than one of the above is possible

    E none of the above is possible

  93. In the Sun's final phase of evolution it will become a

    94. A black hole

    B neutron star

    *C white dwarf

    D any of the above are possible

    E pulsar

  94. Neutron stars are made of matter that

    95. A is very dense but doesn't weigh much.

    B is known as a Black Hole.

    C is known as degenerate protons.

    D is known as degenerate electrons.

    *E have had all of their electrons forced into the protons, making everything neutrons.

  95. The main source of energy for a white dwarf is

    96. A carbon burning

    B contraction

    C helium burning

    *D its stored heat

    E iron burning

  96. Whether a star will end its life as a black hole, a neutron star, or a white dwarf depends on its

    97. *A mass

    B radius

    C rotation rate

    D surface temperature

    E none of the above

  97. The imaginary surface around a black hole inside which nothing can escape is the

    98. A mass limit

    *B event horizon

    C invisible shell

    D singularity

    E none of the above

  98. A planetary nebula is

    99. A a flat disk of material around a protostar

    *B an expanding shell of gas around a dying star

    C .the evaporation of a planet when a star becomes a red giant

    D the final state of a star having a very small size

    E is a disk around a planet

  99. What diagram here most closely depicts the current situation of our sun?

    100. A

    *B

    C

    D

    E

  100. Which sequence represents the proper sequence in the development of a star?

    101. A gas cloud, contraction, adjustment to main sequence

    B gas cloud, ignition, contraction

    *C gas cloud, contraction, ignition, adjustment to main sequence

    D gas cloud, adjustment to main sequence, contraction, ignition

    E gas cloud, contraction, adjustment to main sequence, ignition

  101. The fact that gravity curves space like a flexible rubber sheet is expressed in

    102. A Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity

    *B Einstein's General Theory of Relativity

    C Newton's Laws of Motion

    D Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation

    E Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

  102. The proton-proton reaction in the core of the sun is a multi-step process in reality, but it can be summarized as such:

    103. A 1 x 4He à 4 x 1H + energy

    B 4 x 1He à 1 x 4H + energy

    C 4 x 1H + energy à 1 x 4He

    *D 4 x 1H à 1 x 4He + energy

    E none of the above summarize the core reactions

  103. The spectral types of stars utilize the letters A B F G K M O. Arrange in order from HOTTEST to COOLEST:

    104. *A O-B-A-F-G-K-M

    B M-K-G-F-A-B-O

    C A-B-O-F-G-K-M

    D M-K-G-F-O-B-A

    E B-A-G-K-O-M-F

    The following table gives the name, absolute magnitude (M), apparent magnitude (m), and spectral type for five stars. Answer the following questions using this table and the appropriate letter corresponding to the star that is best described by the line given. Note that stars/letters may be used more than once.

    Star Name M m SpT

    A Aldeberan -0.5 +0.9 K5 III

    B Antares -3.8 +1.0 M2 I

    C Deneb -7.2 +1.3 A2 I

    D Fomalhaut +2.0 +1.2 A3 V

    E Spica -3.5 +1.0 B1 III

  104. Which star appears brightest in the sky to us on Earth?

    105. *A

    B

    C

    D

    E

  105. Which star is intrinsically the brightest?

    106. A

    B

    *C

    D

    E

  106. Which star is hottest?

    107. A

    B

    C

    D

    *E

  107. A Hubble galaxy classification diagram is shown.

    108. Which of the labeled figures above represents an Sa galaxy?

    A 1

    B 2

    C 3

    D 4

    *E 5

  108. Which of the labeled figures above represents a type of elliptical galaxy?

    109. *A 1

    B 2

    C 3

    D 4

    E 5

  109. Which galaxy in the figure above represents an SBc type galaxy?

    110. A 1

    B 2

    *C 3

    D 4

    E 5

  110. If galaxy A is four times more distant than galaxy B, then according to the Hubble Law, galaxy A will recede ___________ than galaxy B.

    111. A 16 times faster

    *B 4 times faster

    C 2 times faster

    D 1.2 times faster

    E 0.25 times faster

  111. A Type I Cepheid has been located in a distant globular cluster with a period of 10 days, what is the star's approximate absolute magnitude?

    112. A -1

    B 0

    *C -4

    D -6

    E The absolute magnitude of a Cepheid variable cannot be determined.

  112. The Curtis-Shapley debate in 1920 debated what astronomical concepts?

    113. A The age of the universe and the critical density

    B The recessional velocities of galaxies outside the Milky Way galaxy

    C The distance of the stars in the Milky Way galaxy

    *D The size of the Milky Way galaxy and nature of the Andromeda nebula

    E The nature of quasars and the number of stars in the Milky Way

  113. Hubble's Law is derived from a plot of what two parameters of galaxies?

    114. A velocity vs. time

    B speed vs. time

    C distance vs. time

    D size vs. distance

    *E recessional velocity vs. distance

  114. Astronomers now theorize that a galaxy's shape depends on all of the following EXCEPT

    115. A the rate of star formation.

    B the history of past collisions.

    C the mass.

    *D the chemical elemental composition.

    E None of the above.

  115. The resolution of Olbers' paradox suggests that it gets dark at night because

    116. A the universe is not infinite in age.

    B the universe is not static.

    C the universe is closed.

    *D a and b above.

    E a, b and c above.

  116. The visible light of galaxies comes mostly from

    117. A dust.

    B emission nebulae.

    C interstellar H I gas.

    *D stars.

    E supernovae.

  117. Observations of galaxies and clusters of galaxies indicate that about ______ per cent of the universe is dark matter.

    118. A 5

    B 25

    C 50

    D 75

    *E 95

  118. Seyfert galaxies, radio galaxies, quasars and blazars are all believed to be manifestations of similar galactic characteristics caused by:

    119. A rapidly spinning neutron stars.

    B billions of stars shining brightly in the core of the galaxy.

    C millions of supernova occurring simultaneously.

    D collisions of galaxies.

    *E active galactic nuclei with a supermassive black hole at the core.

  119. __________________ is (are) observed when light from a distant quasar travels past a massive galaxy between us and the quasar, and this light is focused to form two or more images of the same quasar.

    120. A A double-lobed radio galaxy

    B Superluminal expansion

    *C The gravitational lens effect

    D A blazar

    E Gravitational waves

  120. Astronomers believe that a region in the core of many galaxies contains millions to billions of solar masses called

    121. A a blue supergiant

    B a red supergiant

    C a pulsar

    D a relativistic warp

    *E a supermassive black hole

  121. Scientists look for evidence of supermassive black holes by examining X-ray emissions from regions near the black hole called

    122. A a neutron star

    B a singularity

    C a core

    *D an accretion disk

    E a pulsar

  122. The point at the center of a supermassive black hole in the center of a galaxy is called

    123. A a neutron star

    *B a singularity

    C a core

    D an accretion disk

    E a pulsar

  123. All spiral galaxies contain what well defined structures?

    124. A core, nucleus, rim

    *B nuclear bulge, disk, spiral arms, halo

    C nuclear bulge, disk, accretion disk

    D core, nucleus, accretion disk

    E core, radiative zone, convective zone, photosphere

  124. The center of the universe, the site of the big bang,

    125. A could be located if we could find a galaxy which is not moving.

    B is located in the direction of the constellation Sagittarius.

    *C is not at any one location in our physical universe.

    D is the one point in the universe everything is moving away from.

    E was destroyed by the original explosion.

  125. Which of the following can be used to estimate the distance of galaxies to the greatest distances?

    126. A binary stars

    B supergiant stars

    *C supernovae

    D trigonometric parallax

    E radar

  126. What allows scientists to model space like a rubber surface with mass causing depressions in the surface?

    127. A Einstein’s Special Theory of Relativity

    B Photoelectric Effect

    *C Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity

    D Planck’s Law

    E Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation

  127. Which of the following is used as a distance indicator to nearby galaxies?

    128. *A Cepheid variables

    B pulsars

    C red giants

    D white dwarfs

    E radar

  128. If the red shifts of quasars really do arise from the expansion of the universe then

    129. A a quasar must be very small.

    B a quasar must be within the Local Group.

    C a quasar must be a single star with an extremely large mass.

    D a quasar must be moving toward Earth with a large radial velocity.

    *E a quasar must be very luminous.

  129. Quasars must be small because they

    130. A have high radial velocities.

    B are very luminous.

    C are surrounded by quasar fuzz.

    D radiate huge amounts of energy.

    *E fluctuate rapidly.

  130. What was the first evidence that quasars were different from any objects observed before they were discovered?

    131. A The first quasars were seen to have fuzz.

    *B Quasars emitted radio energy like active galaxies, but appeared to be point sources at visible light.

    C Quasars showed significant gravitational lens effects.

    D The spectra of quasars looked like that of an M dwarf.

    E The large red shifts originally indicated that they were orbiting the center of the Milky Way.

  131. That the radio lobes radiate synchrotron radiation indicates that

    132. *A high speed electrons are spiraling through a magnetic field.

    B the source of the radio jets must be a black hole.

    C the source of the radio energy is rotating rapidly.

    D the central galaxy must be a giant elliptical galaxy.

    E the central galaxy must rotate about two nearly perpendicular axes.

  132. Given the following geometric possibilities of the universe, within which geometry do triangles contain more than 180 degrees?

    133. *A Closed Geometry

    B Open Geometry

    C Flat Geometry

    D Open and Closed Geometry

    E Flat and Closed Geometry

  133. The assumption of homogeneity states that

    134. A the universe looks the same at all epochs of time.

    *B the universe looks the same from all locations over sufficiently great distances.

    C the universe looks the same in all directions over sufficiently great distances.

    D all the above.

    E none of the above.

  134. The assumption of isotropy states that

    135. A the universe looks the same at all epochs of time.

    B the universe looks the same from all locations over sufficiently great distances.

    *C the universe looks the same in all directions over sufficiently great distances.

    D all the above.

    E none of the above.

  135. In the following diagram, the depiction on the RIGHT can be considered to be:

    136. *A isotropic, but not homogeneous

    B homogeneous, but not isotropic

    C homogeneous and isotropic

    D neither homogeneous nor isotropic

    E none of the above

  136. Using the same diagram, the depiction on the LEFT can be considered to be:

    137. A isotropic, but not homogeneous

    *B homogeneous, but not isotropic

    C homogeneous and isotropic

    D neither homogeneous nor isotropic

    E none of the above

  137. The three main alternative fates of the universe are

    138. A Expansion, no expansion, or accelerating expansion.

    B Expansion accelerating, expansion stopping, or expansion forever.

    *C Expanding forever, stopping of expansion, or expansion slowing then reversing.

    D All of the above.

    E None of the above.

  138. What are the future eras of the universe according to the latest theories and models of the universe?

    139. A The Planck Era, the Stelliferous Era, and the Matter Era.

    *B The Degenerate Era, the Black Hole Era, and the Dark Era.

    C The Inflationary Era, the Deflationary Era, and the Radiation Era.

    D The Quark Era, the Planck Era, and the Black Hole Era.

    E The Red Dwarf Era, the White Dwarf Era, and the Black Dwarf Era.

  139. The age of the universe can be determined if

    140. A the universe is flat.

    B the amount of dark matter in the universe can be accurately determined.

    C the rate of recession of the galaxies in the Local Group can be accurately determined.

    D the temperature of the cosmic background radiation can be accurately determined.

    *E the Hubble constant and density of the universe can be accurately determined.

  140. What kind of planet would you expect to find around another star given characteristics of the planet?
  141. What is the importance of the greenhouse effect.
  142. Life is based on what chemistry?
  143. What limitation(s) make it close to impossible to travel, round trip, between stars?
  144. What is the Drake equation?
  145. What type of stars around which should we look for planets?
  146. What are the oldest fossilized microbial remnants.
  147. What is NECESSARY for life here on Earth?
  148. What is the primary method used for finding planets around stars outside of our own solar system?
  149. Evidence for organic molecules has already been discovered where?